The Brazilan company registered the “iPhone” trademark in 2000? So is it correct to assume that in Brazil a company can register a trademark even when it doesn’t have a product to attach the trademark? Generally a trademark application asks the question “first sold date”. It appears that in this case the application for the registration of the trademark for “iPhone” should not have been granted for cell phones in the 1st place, since it did have or sell or claim to be selling a cell phone bearing the “iPhone” trademark. Using international standards, I doubt Apple will have any difficulty defending its mark in Brazil even if it has to pay off the Brazilan company for the tradeamrk rights. Based on the Brazilan granting of the “iPhone” trademark in the first place I suspect this will be the most cost effective method or resolving the problem.